A now deleted question that I tried to ask today is reproduced below (I'm not going to use quotes because it would get messy):
So basically this answer states:
[...] The War Caster feat says:
When a hostile creature's movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and must target only that creature.
The current text of Illusionist's Bracers says:
While wearing the bracers, whenever you cast a cantrip, you can use a bonus action on the same turn to cast that cantrip a second time. [...]
[...] So read Illusionist's Bracers again, and it sure looks like this:
- On a creature's turn, the creature provokes an opportunity attack from a war caster with Illusionist's Bracers.
- The war caster casts a cantrip at the creature as a reaction.
- The Illusionist's Bracers grants a bonus action to the war caster that can be used on that same turn.
- The war caster casts the cantrip again with that bonus action, not on the war caster's turn. [...]
Really my question is simply whether or not this is correct. If something would let you take a bonus action when it is not your turn, can you take that bonus action?
So I'm asking about whether a specific example of a way you might be able to take a bonus action on somebody else's turn actually works. I've asked about specific answers or claims made in them before:
- When the War Caster feat lets my Echo Knight fighter cast a spell instead of the Manifest Echo feature's opportunity attack, where is it cast from?
- Are getting hit and taking damage simultaneous events?
- Can you stand from prone if your speed is 5 and you have no movement remaining?
Is this type of question acceptable? Are they banned for asking about the accuracy of a specific other answer? Does simply removing the reference to that answer (as easily finable as it is) suddenly make the question acceptable?
Regardless, if I were to ask this question, potentially without referencing the previous question and its answers at all, would it be considered a duplicate or would it be considered to be asking about a specific enough scenario with nuance that it is not a duplicate?